Previous Year Solved Question Papers

Previous Year Solved Question Papers

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on Research Aptitude - July 2016

1. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?
(A) Data collection with standardised research tools.
(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.


2. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.

Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(D) (i), (iii) and (v)



3. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?
(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.
(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.



4. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?
(A) Historical method
(B) Descriptive survey method
(C) Experimental method
(D) Ex-post-facto method



5. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis



6. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on Research Aptitude - December 2015

1. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?
(A) It recognizes knowledge as power.
(B) It emphasises on people as experts.
(C) It is a collective process of enquiry.
(D) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.


2. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis?
(A) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.
(B) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
(C) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(D) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.



3. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
(b) Invert authors’ names (last name first)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
(d) Alphabetically index reference list

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b)  
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d)  
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)



4. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?
(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) and (c)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)



5. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?
(A) Rating scale
(B) Interview
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Schedule


6. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
(A) Thesis format
(B) Copyright
(C) Patenting policy
(D) Data sharing policies



7. Consider the argument given below:
‘Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.’

What type of argument it is?
(A) Deductive
(B) Analogical
(C) Psychological
(D) Biological



8. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:
(A) Lexical
(B) Precising
(C) Stipulative
(D) Persuasive



9. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called
(A) An inference
(B) An argument
(C) An explanation
(D) A valid argument

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on Communication - December 2015

1. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation
(B) Problem – orientation
(C) Idea protocol
(D) Mind mapping



2. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
(A) Physical language
(B) Personal language
(C) Para language
(D) Delivery language



3. Every type of communication is affected by its:
(A) Reception
(B) Transmission
(C) Non-regulation
(D) Context



4. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:
(A) Verbal
(B) Non-verbal
(C) Impersonal
(D) Irrational



5. Most often, the teacher - student communication is:
(A) Spurious
(B) Critical
(C) Utilitarian
(D) Confrontational



6. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by:
(A) the use of hyperbole
(B) the change of voice level
(C) the use of abstract concepts
(D) eye contact

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on Reading Comprehension - December 2015

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions

I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which is a horror unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write “Good luck, best, Joel”.

It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.

A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don’t have letter paper at home. And a quarter have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.

Bic, have you heard of mobile phones ? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and
snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.

“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”

Answer the following questions:

1. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean?
(A) A state of confusion
(B) A state of pleasure
(C) A state of anxiety
(D) A state of pain



2. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?
(A) Handwriting
(B) Photography
(C) Sketching
(D) Reading



3. The entire existence of the author revolves round
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewriter

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) only
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c)  
(D) (b) and (c) only



4.  How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(A) 800
(B) 560
(C) 500
(D) 100



5. What is the main concern of the author?
(A) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(B) That the teens use mobile phones.
(C) That the teens use computer.
(D) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on Reasoning - December 2015

1. The next term in the series
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ? is:
(A) 50
(B) 57
(C) 62
(D) 72



2. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:
(A) 80
(B) 76
(C) 74
(D) 72



3. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction, lie turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:
(A) 20 km
(B) 14 km
(C) 12 km  
(D) 10 km



4. The next term in the series:
B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ? is:
(A) J561
(B) 162Q
(C) Q62J
(D) J58Q



5. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is:
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 18
(D) 24



6. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as:
(A) Son
(B) Brother
(C) Uncle
(D) Father



7. Consider the argument given below:
‘Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.’

What type of argument it is?
(A) Deductive
(B) Analogical
(C) Psychological
(D) Biological



8. Among the following propositions two arc related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.

Propositions:
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.

Codes:
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a) and (c)
(D) (a) and (d)



9. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called
(A) An inference
(B) An argument
(C) An explanation
(D) A valid argument



10. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:
(A): No man is perfect.
(R): Some men are not perfect.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.



11. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:
(A) Lexical
(B) Precising
(C) Stipulative
(D) Persuasive



12. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) All men are honest
(B) Some men are honest
(C) Some men are not honest
(D) No honest person is man

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on Data Interpretation - December 2015

Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a country.

Year
Population (million)
Electrical Power Production (GW)*
1951
20
10
1961
21
20
1971
24
25
1981
27
40
1991
30
50
2001
32
80
2011
35
100


* 1 GW = 1000 million watt

Based on the above table, answer the following questions:

1. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?
(A) 1961-71
(B) 1971-81
(B) 1991-2001
(D) 2001-2011



2. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:
(A) ~12.21%
(B) ~9.82%
(C) ~6.73%
(D) ~5%



3. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021?
(A) 40.34 million
(B) 38.49 million
(C) 37.28 million
(D) 36.62 million



4. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?
(A) 100 W
(B) 200 W
(C) 400 W
(D) 500 W



5. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?
(A) 1981-1991
(B) 1991-2001
(C) 2001-2011
(D) 1971-1981



6. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 o 2011?
(A) 100%
(B) 300%
(C) 600%
(D) 900%

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on Information & Communication Technology - December 2015

1. NMEICT stands for:
(A) National Mission on Education through ICT
(B) National Mission on E-governance through ICT
(C) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(D) National Mission on E-learning through ICT



2. Which of the following is an instant messaging application?
(a) WhatsApp
(b) Google Talk
(c) Viber

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (a) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)



3. In a Computer a byte generally consists of:
(A) 4 bits
(B) 8 bits
(C) 16 bits
(D) 10 bits



4. Which of the following is not an input device?
(A) Microphone
(B) Keyboard
(C) Joystick
(D) Monitor



5. Which of the following is an open source software?
(A) MS Word
(B) Windows
(C) Mozilla Firefox
(D) Acrobat Reader



6. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word?
(A) Mail join
(B) Mail copy
(C) Mail insert
(D) Mail merge

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on People & Environment - December 2015

1. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
(A) Wildfire
(B) Lightning
(C) Landslide
(D) Chemical contamination



2. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to
(A) 175 GW
(B) 200 GW
(C) 250 GW
(D) 350 GW



3. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India


4. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves
(b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters

Choose the correct code:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (b) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)



5. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans ?
(A) Pesticides
(B) Mercury
(C) Lead
(D) Ozone



6. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.

Choose the correct answer from the following
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on Higher Education System, Governance, Polity & Administration - December 2015

1. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)



2. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)



3. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)



4. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in
(A) the Union List
(B) the State List
(C) the Concurrent List
(D) the Residuary Powers



5. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(D) not fixed



6. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal



7. NMEICT stands for:
(A) National Mission on Education through ICT
(B) National Mission on E-governance through ICT
(C) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(D) National Mission on E-learning through ICT

UGC NET Paper-1 Previous Year Questions on Teaching Aptitude - December 2015

1. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the demand on the:
(A) Family 
(B) Society
(C) Teacher
(D) State



2. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?
(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.
(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c)                   
(D) (b), (c) and (d)



3. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?
(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 



4. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple - choice type questions?
(A) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
(B) They are less objective than essay type questions.
(C) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.
(D) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.



5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titled
(A) International Commission on Education Report
(B) Millennium Development Report
(C) Learning : The Treasure Within
(D) World Declaration on Education for All



6. What are required for good teaching?
(a) Diagnosis
(b) Remedy
(c) Direction
(d) Feedback

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a) and (b)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (c) and (d)



7. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:
(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b), (c) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only
(D) (a) only

 

8. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation
(B) Problem - orientation
(C) Idea protocol
(D) Mind mapping

 

9. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:
(A) Verbal
(B) Non-verbal
(C) Impersonal
(D) Irrational

 

10. Most often, the teacher - student communication is:
(A) Spurious
(B) Critical
(C) Utilitarian
(D) Confrontational

 

11. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by:
(A) the use of hyperbole
(B) the change of voice level
(C) the use of abstract concepts
(D) eye contact