UPSC Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner (APFC) Solved Question Paper for 2012

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1. If 20% of P = 30% of Q = 1/6 of R., then P: Q : R is :

(a) 2 : 3 : 16

(b) 3 : 2 : 16
(c) 10 : 15 : 18
(d) 15 : 10 18

Answer: (d)


2. A tree increases annually by 1/8th of its height. What will be its height after 2 years, if it stands today 64 cm high?

(a) 72 cm

(b) 74 cm
(c) 81 cm
(d) 85 cm

Answer (c)

3. The sides of a triangle GHL are GH= 65 m, HL = 75 m and LG=80 m. What is the area of this triangle (square meters)?
(a) 2100

(b) 2160
(c) 2200
(d) 2280

Answer: (d)


4. Three sets of data on comparable situations are available as under :



No of data

Mean value

Std Deviation














Considering all the data sets together, the overall mean value would be ..

(a) 7.24
(b) 7.66
(c) 8.08
(d) 8.50

Answer: (c)


5. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km. Thereafter it travels a distance of 72 km with an average speed of 6 km/hour more than the original speed. Total time taken to complete the journey is 3 hours. What is the original average speed of the train ?
(a) 36 kmph

(b) 42 kmph
(c) 48 kmph
(d) 54 kmph


 Answer: (b)


6. An iron rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm length, is drawn into a wire of 18m in length with uniform thickness. The thickness of the wire would be :

(a) 1/21

(b) 1/18
(c) 1/15
(d) 1/12

Answer: (c)


7. A 60 m long train travels at a uniform speed of 72 kmph. It passes non-stop along the 600m platform of a wayside station. What is the elapsed time for the train to entirely clear the platform ?

(a) 30 seconds
(b) 31 seconds
(c) 32 seconds
(d) 33 seconds


8. Train A is 75 m long and travels at a uniform speed of 54 km/hour. Train S is 125 m long and travels at a uniform speed of 36 km/hour in the direction opposite to that of Train A. If these trains are crossing at a double-track stretch, what is the time taken for the two trains to fully clear each other ?

(a) 10 seconds
(b) 8 seconds
(c) 7.2 seconds
(d) 6.6 seconds

Answer: (b)

9. Biome, largest recognizable assemblage of animals and plants on the Earth. is controlled mainly by :

(a) Biological activity
(b) Landforms
(c) Climate
(d) Soil

Answer: (c)

10. ‘Kyoto Protocol’, an agreement signed by various countries, is associated with

(a) International trade
(b) Deep sea oil and mineral exploration
(c) Clean environment and climate change
(d) Building common food stock to save

Answer is (C).


11. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area ?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitats
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:  (A)


12. Vultures, which were very common in our countryside a few years ago, are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to one of the Following :

(a) Destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
(c) Scarcity of food available to them
(d) A widespread, persistent and fatal disease amongst them

Answer (B)


13. Match List

1.                 Buxa Tiger Reserve

1.                 Rajasthan

2.                 Periyar Tiger Reserve

2.                 Gujarat

3.                 Sariska National Park

3.                 West Bengal

4.                 Wild Ass Sanctuary

4.                 Kerala


(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 1 4 2

Answer: (B)


14. The regional project by name ‘CASA-1000’ (Central Asia-South Asia-1000), funded by World Bank, pertains to the field of :
(a) Eradication of HIV AIDS
(b) Roads and Buildings
(c) Electricity
(d) Eradication of illiteracy

Answer (C)

15. Who won the Golden Boot Award in the recently concluded UEFA Euro 2012
(a) Fernando Torres (Spain)
(b) Mario Balotelli (Italy)
(c) Cristiano Ronaldo (Portugal)
(d) Mario Gonna (Germany)

Answer (A)

16.  Match List-1 with List-11 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

1.     Steve Jobs

2.     Sheryl Sandberg

3.     Larry Page

4.     Ross Levinsolhn

1.     Google

2.     Apple

3.     Yahoo

4.     Facebook



     A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer: (C)


17. Match book with Author


a.     Rahul Dravid: Timeless Steel 

b.     An Ashes Summer

c.     Sachin : A Hundred Hundreds Now

d.     Opening Up :My autography

1.     Steve Waugh and Nasser Hussain

2.     Greg Chappell

3.     Mike Atherton

4.     V. Krishroswamy


(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 1 4 3

Answer: (D)

18. Why was Justice Dalveer Bhandari in the news recently ?

(a) He became member of UN Human Rights Council,
(b) He was elected to the International Court of Justice.
(c) He became Director General of World Trade Organization.
(d) He became Secretary-General of SAARC

Answer (B)


19. Match Head with Institution

1.                Jim Yong Kim

2.                 Kamlesh Sharma

3.                 Christine Lagarde

4.                 Catherine Day

1.       President, World Bank

2.      Secretary-General, Commonwealth

3.      Managing Director, IMF

4.     Secretary-General of the European Commission


(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 4 3

No correct answer


20. Despite having huge coal reserve in OUT country, why do we import millions of tons of coal?

1.     It is policy of Govt. of India to save its own coal reserve for future use and import now from other countries for present use.

2.     Most of the thermal plants in our country are coal based and they are unable to gel sufficient coal supply from our coal mines.

3.     Steel plants require large quantities of coking coal which we do not have, coking coal is to be imported from other countries.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer (b)

21. Which of the following statements is true about Industrial Policy since 1991?
(a) Only 5 industrial related to security, strategic and environmental concerns require Industrial License.
(b) An investor need not file an industrial entrepreneur Memorendum.
(c) There is no reservation of products for production in small scale sectors.
(d) The number of industries reserved for public sector has been enhanced.

Answer:  (a)


22. The newly introduced rupee symbol is based on
(a) Roman and Greek script
(b) Persian and Dravidian script
(c) Roam and Devanagari script
(d) Greek and Devanagari script

Answer: (c)


23. Which one of the following expresses the relation between normal price and market price?
(a) Market price is greater than normal price
(b) Market price is equal to normal price
(c) Market price tends to be equal to normal price
(d) Market price is lesser than normal price
Answer (C)

24. Bancassurance is
(a) An insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(b) An insurance scheme exclusively for bank employees
(c) A composite financial service offering both bank and insurance products
(d) A bank deposit scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies

Answer: (C)


25. Inflation can be controlled by
(a) Increase in wages
(b) Decrease in taxation
(c) Reduction in public expenditure
(d) Making the rupee dearer

Answer: (d)

26. Which of the following can be termed an infrastructural bottleneck in the development of India’s economy ?
(a) The federal nature of Indian Polity.
(b) Existence of a large variety of financial institutions
(c) Delay in the administration of justice relating to land acquisition and displacement
(d) The volatility of the Indian rupee

Answer: (C)


27. It is said that. in order to control inflation, foreign inflow needs to be sterilized. Sterilization here refers to
(a) Ensuring that counterfeit currency does not enter circulation,
(b) Ensuring that black money is accounted for,
(c) Withdrawing equivalent local currency to maintain a desirable rate of exchange,
(d) Compliance with import-export regulations,

Answer: (C)

28. NABARD means
(a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(b) National Agricultural Bank and Rural Development
(c) National Agricultural Board and Rural Development
(d) National Board for Agricultural and Rural Area Development

Answer: (a)


29. Which of the following are the main causes of the slow rate of growth of per capita income in India?
1. High rate of capital formation
2. High level of fiscal deficits
3. High rate of growth of population

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer (D)

30. If the RBI adopts an expansionist open market operations policy, this means it will
(a) Sell securities in the open market.
(b) Buy securities from non-government holders.
(c) Openly announce to the market that it intends to expand credit.
(d) Offer commercial banks more credit in the open marker

Answer (B)


31. Structural Planning refers to .
(a) Centralized planning,
(b) Laying down broad goals and strategics.
(c) Changing existing institutions or creating new ones.
(d) Fixing flexible targets.

Answer (C) 


32. Which of the following is NOT one of the features of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) being set up for promoting exports ?
(a) Foreign workers will be allowed free entry without Visa restrictions.
(b) The SEZ area will be treated as foreign territory for trade operations, duties and tariff.
(c) Them will be no routine examination by customs authorities of import-export cargo.
(d) No license is required for import into the zone.

Answer (A)

33. Match the Following

1.                 D.M Dharmadhikari

1.                National Corporate Governance

2.                 Anil Kakodkar

2.                 Air India—Indian Airlines merger

3.                 B.N. Srikrishna

3.                 Indian Railways High Level Safety Review

4.                 Adi Godrej

4.                 Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission


      A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer (B)


Read the passage and give the correct answer for the questions:


It has been rightly said that we spend the first half of our lives trying to understand the older generation, and the second half trying to understand the younger generation. Youth has always felt somewhat exasperated with age, and age has always been suspicious of youth. With their natural ebullience and impatience, a majority of you people are keen to act and learn on their own rather than be guided by the experience of their elders. The older people, being more at home with words rather than with action, often make noises about the problems of youth. In every generation, old men are found shaking their hoary heads and waxing nostalgic about the good old days when young people knew better and showed due reverence to age and tradition. In all ages, whenever they have pondered over the ways of youth, they have foreseen nothing but ruination staring the world in its face. And yet the world goes on. Every generation passes from the spontaneity and exuberance of youth to the caution and prudence of old age, and then yields place to the next.


34. What, according to you, is the theme and the idea of the passage ?
(a) Generation gap
(b) Problems of the youth
(c) Optimism of the older generation
(d) None of the above

Answer: (A)

35. The older generation is suspicious about the younger generation as the youngsters lack
(a) knowledge
(b) experience
(c) patience
(d) time

Answer (C)


36. The author seems to be supportive of the idea that
(a) the people of the older generation are men of words rather than action.
(b) the younger generation is impatient
(c) the younger generation today is much misunderstood and more maligned than it deserves
(d) none of the above

Answer: (C)

37. “And yet the world goes on”—what is the tone of the author in this statement?
(a) Optimistic
(b) Pessimistic
(c) Cynical
(d) Criti

Answer: (b)


38. Which of the following pairs of words expresses the same relationship as in ELUSIVE : CAPTURE ?
(a) Sensible : decide
(b) Headstrong: controlled
(c) Elastic : stretch
(d) Persuasive : convince

Answer (B)


39. Choose the word which is the nearest opposite to the meaning of the underlined word :

I wish I could pursue my studies.

(a) Discontinue
(b) Abandon
(c) Restrain
(d) Deter

Answer: (A)


40. Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word CIRCUITOUS ?
(a) Indirect
(b) Confusing
(c) Crooked
(d) Cyclic

Answer: (A)


41. A cultivator has about two hectares of rain fed land without irrigation facilities. Which type of crops would he like to grow?
1. Jowar
2. Cotton
3. Arhar
4. Potatoes

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer (D)


42. Which one of the following statements is true about red soil ?
(a) It is rich in humus.
(b) It is rich in potash.
(c) It is rich in iron compounds.
(d) It is derived from volcanic origin.
Answer: (C)

43. Which one of the following sets of industries were among first modern industries in India ?

(a)  Tea, Cotton and Sugar

(b)  Jute, Silk and Cotton

(c) Cotton, Jute and Coal-Mines

(d)  Sugar, Silk and Steel


Answer: (C)


44.  Archaeological studies suggest the theory that

(a)  All the continents were settled with human societies at about the same time

(b)  Farming societies developed before hunting and gathering

(c) The earliest human evolved in the Rift valley in East Africa

(d)  The wheel was in use in all ancient societies

Answer: (C)

45. Which term is used to describe the spread of Buddhism from India through Southeast Asia?
(a) Social mobility
(b) Cultural diffusion
(c) Ethnocentrism
(d) interdependence

Answer: (B)


46. Consider the following statements about heritage :
1. Heritage is that which has been or may be inherited.
2. Heritage is anything given or received to be a proper possession.

Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (C)

47. Consider the following statements :
1. By the early nineteenth century British carried out detailed surveys.
2. The effort was to know the topography, the soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the logical histories and the cropping pattern.

Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (C)


48. Which of the following is a correct statement about both the Mughal and Ottoman empires in the sixteenth century?
(a) Both of these empires had powerful navies that engaged European navies.
(b) Both of these empires expanded through the use of gunpowder weapons and extensive bureaucracies.
(c) Both of these empires gave little monetary support to artistic and cultural endeavors.
(d)  In both of these empires the majority of the people were Muslims.


Answer: (B)

49. Which is the correct meaning of the term `rule of primogeniture’ ?
(a) Favourite son inheriting his father’s estate
(b) Eldest son inheriting his father’s estate
(c) Division of the inheritance amongst all the SODS
(d) Division of the inheritance amongst all the sons and daughters

Answer (B)


50. Which of the following would be the most useful source of evidence for research about the agrarian history of the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries ?
(a) Accounts of contemporary travellers
(b) Individual revenue records
(c) Chronicles and documents from the Mughal court
(d) Records of the East India company

Answer (C)


51. Consider the following

1.     Rowlett Act movement (1919)

2.     Khera movement

3.     Champaran (1917)

4.     Ahmedabad mill strike

What is the correct chronological order of the above mentioned Gandhian movements ?

(a)  3, 4, 2 and 1

(b)  2, 3, 1 and 4

(c) 3, 2, 4 and 1

(d)  2,1, 3 and 4

Answer (C).


52.  Statement (I) : Industrial relation is currently more influenced by the external market forces than the power play between employers and employees.

Statement (II) : The forces of globalization have made competition so imperative that unions and their tactics like stopping productivity no more hold good.


(a) Both statements are correct and II explains I.

(b) Both statements are correct but II does not explain I

(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is not correct

(d) Both statements are not correct

Answer (A)


53.  Match following

1.     Industrial Welfare

1. Charles A Mayers

2.     Human Relations thought

2. A.K. Rice

3.     Concept of Third Force

3. Robert Owen

4.     Ahmedabad Experiment

4. Elton Mayo


(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer: (D)

54. Match Following

1.     First National Comission on Labour,1969

1.                 GK Chanda

2.     Wage Board for Working Journalists, 2009

2.                 Ravindra Verma

3.     Second National Commission on Labour. 2002

3.                 P.B. Gajendragadkar.

4.     Index Review Committee, 2009

4.                 R. Mejithia

Code :
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 4 3

Answer: (A)


55. Which of the following is NOT covered by the Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 ?
(a) Pension
(b) Provident Fund
(c) Deposit Linked insurance
(d) Injury Compensation

Answer: (D)

56. Which of the following statements about Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 is true ?
(a) It is not social security legislation.
(b) Its name has been changed to the Employee’s Compensation Act in 2009.
(c) It provides maximum Compensation in the event of death.
(d) It does not provide compensation for occupational diseases.

Answer: B

Read the passage and give the correct answer for the questions:


Who deserves more severe punishment? One who gives bribes or the one who takes them? The common practice of bribery is possible because there is someone who is ready to pay money for illegal action or decision in his favour, Otherwise, how can one demand a bribe ? The bribe-giver tempts others to be corrupt and thus demoralizes our national character. Even Jesus Christ, fearing the power of temptation, had said, ‘Lead me not into temptation”. A bribe-giver is generally moneyed and influential, while, on the other hand, one who demands bribe does so because of his poor circumstances arid compulsions. Hence, one who gives bribe should be awarded more severe punishment because he exploits the weakness of poor. Giving and taking bribe happens in a more vicious circle which can continue only because of money, Naturally. therefore, it is the affluent that grease this wheel of corruption and should accordingly he dealt with firmly and suitably punished to put a stop to this nefarious practice.



57. The author feels that the practice of bribery is there because there are willing bribe-givers,
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partially true
(d) None of the above

Answer (A)


58. Who, according to the author, is more responsible among the following ?
(a) The bribe-taker
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The witness
(d) The general public

Answer (B)


59. Who, according to the author should be punished more severely ?
(a) The Police who allow this practice
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The person who demands bribe
(d) None of the above

Answer (B)


60. Who, according to the author is more corrupted?
(a) Our system
(b) The person who demands bribe
(c) The affluent who exploits the weakness of the poor.
(d) The supporter of bribe who is left with little choice

Answer (C)


61. A judgment made before all the facts are known must be called :
(a) Deliberate
(b) Sensible ,
(c) Premature
(d) Harsh

Answer (C)

62. Which of the following legislations is comprehensive social security legislation?
(a) The Maternity Benefit Act
(b) The Employees State Insurance Act
(c) The Employees Compensation Act
(d) The Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act

Answer (D)

 63. What is the maximum limit of gratuity payable under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 ?

(a) 3 Lakhs rupees
(b) 7.5 Lakhs rupees
(c) 10 Lakhs rupees
(d) 10.5 Lakhs rupees

Answer (C)

64. The main objective of the Minimum Wages Acts 1948 is to safeguard the interests of the workers engaged in ;
(a) Unorganized sector
(b) Organized sector
(c) Industrial sector
(d) Agricultural sector

Answer (A)

65. In which of the following Acts, housing facility is a statutory provision
(a) The Plantations Labour Act, 1951
(b) The Factories Act, 1948
(c) The Mines Act, 1952
(d) None of the above

Answer (A)

66. Consider the following statements regarding human development :
1. Skills may be harnessed in the society through participations of NGOs.
2. To fill the internal gaps in the system, reviews and international experiences can prove to be helpful.

Which of these statements is are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Neither I nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (D)


67. Statement (I): Every State in India has a High Court in its (State’s) territory.
Statement (II): As per constitution of India, each State is provided to have a High Court.

Which of these statements is are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Neither I nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b)


68. Statement (I): The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the constitution, aim at providing the social and economic base of a genuine democracy.
Statement (II): The Directive Principles are merely directives which the government has to keep in mind while framing policy and is not enforceable through courts.

(a) Both are individually correct and II correctly explaining I

(b) Both are individually correct but II is not explaining I

(c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct


Answer: (b)


69. Which of the following sets of countries has only federations?

a.     New Zealand, India, Zimbabwe and Argentina

b.     Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria and Brazil

c.     India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and South Africa

d.     France, Germany, Sweden and Switzerland

Answer: (B)

70. In which part of the Indian Constitution, Worker’s participation in Management has been incorporated ?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above

Answer (c)

71.  The following provision, “Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance” is a

(a)  Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Constitution of India

(b)  Directive Principle of State Policy of the Constitution of India

(c) Fundamental Duty laid down by the Constitution of India.

(d)  Presidential order in accordance with the Constitution of India


Answer (B)

72.  The Seventh schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding

(a)  Scheduled Languages

(b)  Oaths and affirmations

(c) Administration of Tribal area

(d)  Union, State, Concurrent Lists

Answer (D)


73. The President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of elected members of
1. Both Houses of Parliament
2. The Legislative Assemblies of the States
3. Union Council of Ministers

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer :(C)

74. The responsibility of preparation of electoral rolls in India rests with
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Local Administration
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The Returning Officer
Answer: (c)


75. At the time of becoming the Prime Minister of our country one
(a) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament. If not, must become a member of one of the Houses within Six months.
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament but must get elected as a member of Lok Sabha within Six months.
(c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament prior to appointment.
(d) Must be a member of Rajya Sabha.

Answer: (A)

76. Match following

A.     Second Administrative Reforms Commission

1. Vijay Kelkar

B.     Second Commission on Centre State Relations

2. Justice M.N.Venkatchaliah

C.    Thirteenth Finance Commission

3. Justice Madan Mohan Punchi

D.    National Commission for the Review of the working of the Constitution.

4. M.Veerpappamoily


(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 l 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 1 3 4

Answer: (a)


77. What is common to Sardar Hukum Singh, Jagiivan Ram. Inderjit Gupta, Somnath Chatterjee and Seth Govind Das ?
(a) They were Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(b) They were Deputy Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(c) They were Pro-tern Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(d) None of the Above

Answer: (C)

78. The purpose of Adjournment motion in our Parliament is
(a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.
(b) To let opposition members collect information from concerned Ministers.
(c) To allow a reduction of specific amount in the demand of grant.
(d) To postpone the proceedings to cheek the inappropriate or the violent behavior on the part of some members,

Answer (A)

79. Consider the following statements regarding limitations on the authority of the Indian Parliament
1. Most of the important laws can be introduced in the Parliament with the prior consent of the President.
2. Parliament has to operate within the jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution,

Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

Answer: (A)


80. Consider the following statements in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) :
1. Reports on the accounts of the States are submitted to the President who shall cause these to be placed before the Parliament.
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India and can be removed only on grounds and procedure similar to those of a Supreme Court Judge.
3. The form in which accounts of the Centre and States are to be kept is prescribed by CAG

Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer (C)


81. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of the person (in kg) is divided by the
(a) Square of the weight (in kg)
(b) Square of the height (in meters)
(c) Square root of the height (in meters)
(d) Vitamins intake

Answer: (b)

82. Gun metal is an alloy of
(a) Copper, Tin and Zinc
(b) Aluminium. Tin and Steel
(c) Copper, Steel and Zinc,
(d) Aluminium, Tin and Zinc

Answer (A)

83. If the electrical resistance of a typical substance suddenly drops to zero, then the substance is called
(a) Semiconductor
(b) Conductor
(c) Superconductor
(d) Super semiconductor
Answer (C)


84. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of tin and lead. This alloy should have:

a.     High specific resistance and low melting point

b.     Low specific resistance and high melting point.

c.     Low specific resistance and low melting point,

d.     High specific resistance and high melting point

Answer: (a)


85. Statement (I) In order to produce electric power from a geothermal reservoir, temperature above 180° is required.

Statement (II): To drive steam turbines, high temperature steam is used.
(a) Both are individually correct and II correctly explaining I

(b) Both are individually correct but II is not explaining I

(c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct

Answer: (a)


86. The word FTP stands for

(a)  File Transit Provision

(b)  File Translate Protocol

(c) File Transfer Provision

(d)  File Transfer Protocol

Answer: (d)


87. RAM stands for:
(a) Random Access Memory
(b) Read Access Memory
(c) Random Attribute Memory
(d) Random Applicable Memory

Answer: (A)


88. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer ?
(a) Monitor
(b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
(c) Control Unit
(d) Central Processing Unit (CPU)

Answer: (D)

89. A technique in which data is written to two duplicate disks simultaneously, is called :
(a) Mirroring
(b) Multiplexing
(c) Duplicating
(d) Copying
Answer (A)


90. term e-Waste refers to :

a.     The files that are deleted and enter the Waste-bin folder in a computer

b.     The temporary files, folders, links etc, that are rarely used in a computer

c.     The electronic products such as mobiles, PCs etc. that are disposed off after their useful life

d.     A portal that offers services for collecting household waste

Answer (C)


91. CAD stands for :
(a) Computer Aided Design
(b) Computer Application in Design
(c) Coded Algorithm in Design
(d) Coded Addressable Design

Answer: (a)


92. The Endeavour of “Janani Suraksha Yojana” Programme is to
1. Promote institutional deliveries
2. Provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. Provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)


93. Which of the following is the earliest in be constituted?
(a) Press Council of India (1966)
(b) United News of India (1961)
(c) NAM News Network (2005)
(d) Press Trust of India (1947)

Answer: (d)


94. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims at enhancing livelihood security in rural areas or India by providing at least one hundred :
(a) Days of guaranteed employment in a financial year to able adults in the Information Technology sector.
(b) Days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to adult members of a rural household
(c) Meals to children of Pura/ households in one financial year.
(d) Employees for rural developmental schemes in a financial year

Answer (B)

95. One of the following Government of India Programmes aims to help, build or upgrade dwelling units of below the poverty line rural families
(a) National Social-Assistance Programme
(b) Jawahat Rojgar Yojana
(c) Indira Awas Yojana
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban . Renewal Mission

Answer: (c)


96. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was launched in 1995 with the aim to:
1. Enhance enrolment, retention and attention of primary school children
2. Improve the nutritional status of primary school children
3. Improve the habit of reading reading rural households
4. Encourage the use of Tiffin boxes among primary School children

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer (a)

97. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation of the National Cooperative Farming Advisory Board for putting cooperative farming on a sounder footing ?
(a) Every Society should have a definite programme for total pooling of lands.
(b) Financial assistance should be given only for purchase of new land.
(c) Stale Governments should give priority to revitalization of the existing societies.
(d) Joint fanning must be practiced with respect to all lands of the society.

Answer (b)


98. Three States which have Human Development Index (HDI) higher than China are :
(a) Kerala. Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kerala. Punjab and Maharashtra
(c) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Punjab
(d) Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat

No Answer


100. How does National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor ?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centers in rural areas.
2. By strengthening Self Help Group’s (SHG) and providing skill development.
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers.

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only

Answer: (b)



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