Previous Year Solved Question Papers

Previous Year Solved Question Papers

MCQs on Education System & Governance - 5

1. Who heads the committee, constituted by the Government of India, to draft the New Education Policy
(A)  Sam Pitroda
(B) TSR Subramanian
(C) Yash Pal 
(D) V K Saraswat

2. Who was the first Chairman of University Grant Commission?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Prof. Yash Pal
(C) Prof. S.S. Bhatnagar
(D) Prof. D.S. Kothari

3. Distance education is not
(A) Telemetric teaching
(B) Distance study
(C) Work oriented education
(D) De-schooling

4. In which models of Integrated Education Programme is being implemented in large scale by governmental and non-governmental agencies in India?
(A) Resource model
(B) Itinerant model
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Dual Teaching Model

5. Fair and free election means:
(A) transparency
(B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations
(D) role for pressure groups

6. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government of India?
(A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi
(B) Mythic Society, Bangalore
(C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi
(D) India International Centre, New Delhi

7. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:
(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(C) Department of Women and Child Development
(D) All the above

8. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi

Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only
(D) 4 only

9. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

10. CLASS stands for
(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools

11. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is:
(A) To prepare students to pass examination
(B) To develop the capacity to take decisions
(C) To give new information
(D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture

12. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of:
(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission
(B) Mudaliar Commission
(C) Sargent Commission
(D) Kothari Commission

13. The University which telecasts interactive educational programmes through its own channel is:
(A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad
(B) I.G.N.O.U.
(C) University of Pune
(D) Annamalai University

14. The Government established the University Grants Commission by an Act of Parliament in the year:
(A) 1980
(B)  1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1956

15. Universities having central campus for imparting education are called:
(A) Central Universities
(B) Deemed Universities
(C) Residential Universities
(D) Open Universities

MCQs on Ecology & Biodiversity Conservation -10

1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Specification for environmental management system ISO 14001
(B) Environmental performance evaluation ISO 14040
(C) Guidelines for environmental auditing ISO 14000
(D) Environmental labels and declaration ISO 14004

2. Quantifying the energy and raw material requirement as a part of life cycle assessment, is termed as
(A) Life Cycle improvement analysis.
(B) Life Cycle impact analysis.
(C) Life Cycle inventory.
(D) Life Cycle pre-requisites.

3. Wilting coefficient of a loam represents
(A) The minimum water content of the soil at which plants can no longer obtain water
(B) Water holding capacity
(C) Capillary water
(D) Field capacity

4. The sequence of fossil fuels in the order of higher to lower heating value is as follows:
(A) Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Hydrogen.
(B) Hydrogen, Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal.
(C) Hydrogen, Coal, Natural Gas, Petroleum.
(D) Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal, Hydrogen.

5. Which bacteria removes copper from low grade copper ore?
(A) Thiobacillussp
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Rhizobium sp
(D) All of the above

6. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Increasing temperature in the environment influences gonadal growth in fish.
Reason (R): Increase in day length causes increase in environmental temperature in summer.

Choose the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.

7. Removal of top fertile soil by water is called
(A) Leaching
(B) Siltation
(C) Weathering of soil
(D) Soil erosion

8. Among total dissolved matter in marine water, chlorine accounts for
(A) 30%
(B) 55%
(C) 12%
(D) 6%

9. Chaparral, Maquis, Encinous, Melleseab are important areas of
(A) Tropical evergreen woodland
(B) Temperate evergreen woodland
(C) Tropical deciduous woodland
(D) Temperate deciduous woodland

10. Which of the following material is not easily broken down?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Hemicellulose
(C) Chitin
(D) Amino acids

11. Difference between mineral resource and reserve is
(A) Reserve implies high degree of economic viability
(B) Resource implies high degree of geological knowledge
(C) Reserve implies high degree of economic viability and high degree of geological knowledge
(D) Resource implies high degree of economic viability and high degree of geological

12. The Indian monsoon period is from
(A) October to November
(B) December to February
(C) June to September
(D) March to May

13. Geothermal gradient in Earth is
(A) Uniform throughout.
(B) Higher in continental lithosphere.
(C) Higher in subduction zones.
(D) Lower at mid oceanic ridges.

14. The highest seismic domain in India is
(A) The Himalayas
(B) The Western Ghats
(C) The Indogenetic plains
(D) The Dhār war craton

15. Algal biofertilizer consists of
(A) Blue green algae and earthworm
(B) Algal biomass and Mycorrhiza
(C) Blue green algae and Azolla
(D) Green algae and Rhizobia

MCQs on Ecology & Biodiversity Conservation -9

1. Limnetic zone in freshwater ecosystem is characterised by
(A) Presence of rooted vegetation
(B) Absence of rooted vegetation
(C) Presence of large proportion of lime
(D) Absence of phytoplankton

2. Vegetation cover shows maximum reflectance in which of the following regions of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum?
(A) Ultraviolet
(B) Near infrared
(C) Middle infrared
(D) Visible

3. During remote sensing of the vegetation cover, the spectral reflection of vegetation over electromagnetic radiation spectrum depends upon
(A) Pigmentation in the leaf
(B) Structure of the leaf
(C) Moisture content of the leaf
(D) All the above characters

4. Which of the following organic compounds is not of biogenic origin?
(A) Isoprene
(B) α-pinene
(C) Myrcene
(D) Acrolein

5. Which of the following is used as plant indicator for detection of presence of SO2 and HF in air?
(A) Lichen
(B) Orchid
(C) Apricot
(D) Tobacco

6. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year 1976?
(A) Insertion of Article 48-A
(B) Insertion of Article 51-A (g)
(C) Insertion of Article 48-A and 51-A (g)
(D) None of the above

7. Who issues the Ecomark notification?
(A) Ministry of Environment and Forest, Govt. of India
(B) Ministry of Human Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India
(C) Department of Science and Technology, Govt. of India
(D) Bureau of Indian Standards

8. How many hot spots have been identified in the world and Indian Subcontinent respectively?
(A) 17, 2
(B) 12, 3
(C) 35, 2
(D) 17, 3

9. Assertion (A): Every country should integrate the principles of sustainable development into its policies and programmes.
Reason (R): Environmental resources are a Nation’s wealth.

Choose the correct code from the following:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

10. Spotted deer, Asiatic wild ass, Black buck are,
(A) Endangered species
(B) Vulnerable species
(C) Threatened species
(D) Key species

11. Specific mortality of members of a population is expressed by
(A) Life table
(B) Survivorship curve
(C) Rate of mortality
(D) Rate of fecundity

12. Which group of vertebrate comprises maximum number of endangered species?
(A) Fish
(B) Amphibia
(C) Reptiles
(D) Birds

13. Which specific common feature is not found in zooplankton and rabbit?
(A) Both are animals
(B) Both are primary consumers
(C) Both are carnivores
(D) Both are herbivores

14. The following exogenous and endogenous factors are the cause of extinction of animal species:
I. Ecological niche
II. Decrease in reproductive potency.
III. Lesser adaptability to fluctuating environment.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II
(D) I, II and III

15. Which one of the following is not a post audit activity under environmental audit process?
(A) Review of draft report by Law department.
(B) Issue of final report to functional specialist.
(C) Develop action plan to establish responsibility.
(D) Report audit findings.

MCQs on Ecology & Biodiversity Conservation -8

1. The allochthonous microorganisms of an ecosystem are
(A) Indigenous microorganisms
(B) Migrant
(C) Parasitic
(D) Pathogenic

2. The biodegradation of plant material is slow because of presence of
(A) Cellulose
(B) Xylene
(C) Extensin/protein
(D) Lignin

3. An ecotype is
(A) Genetically different forms of the same organisms
(B) Genetically similar forms of the same organisms
(C) Morphologically different forms of the same organisms
(D) Both (A) and (B)

4. The following are the characters of species diversity:
(i) More richness
(ii) More evenness
(iii) More dominance
(iv) Less dominance
(v) Less richness
(vi) Less evenness

Point out the combination of conditions in which species diversity of an ecosystem will be more.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (v), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (vi) and (iv)

5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): If natality is greater than mortality, it leads to population explosion.
Reason (R): The scientific study of various species of human population is called demography.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

6. Match Column – I with Column – II :
Column – I                                          Column – II
(i) Chipko  Movement                         1. Medha Patkar
(ii) Narmada Bacchao Andolan          2. Al Gore
(iii) Climate Change                            3. Rachel Carson
(iv) Silent Spring                                 4. Sundarlal Bahuguna

Choose the correct code:
      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 1   2    3     4
(B) 2   3    4     1
(C) 4   1    2     3
(D) 3   4    1     2

7. Assertion (A): The energy flow in an ecosystem follows the law of thermodynamics.
Reason (R): The energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional and during the transformation of energy from one trophic level to the other, 80 – 90% of energy is lost.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

8. Assertion (A): Marine biodiversity tends to be highest in mid-latitudes in all oceans and along coasts in the Western Pacific.
Reason (R): Sea surface temperature along coasts in the Western Pacific is highest.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

9. “Double digging” is a method of
(A) Bio-intensive agriculture
(B) Deforestation
(C) Aforestation
(D) Water conservation

10. The rate of replacement of species along a gradient of habitats pertains to
(A) Alpha diversity
(B) Beta diversity
(C) Gamma diversity
(D) Species diversity

11. Match the List – I and List – II. Choose the correct answer from the given codes:
List – I                                    List – II
(Vegetation development)      (Nomenclature of succession)
(a) On a rock                         i. Psammosere
(b) On sand                           ii. Lithosere
(c) In aquatic habitat            iii. Xerosere
(d) In dry habitat                  iv. Hydrosere

(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)
(A)       ii          i           iv         iii
(B)       i           ii          iii         iv
(C)       iii         iv         ii          i
(D)       iv         iii         i           ii

12. If individuals of a species remain alive only in captivity or other human controlled conditions, the species is said to be
(A) Ecologically extinct
(B) Mass extinct
(C) Wild extinct
(D) Anthropogenic extinct

13. Which of the following symbolises correct sequence in hydrosere?
(A) Diatoms → Wolffia → Hydrilla → Cyperus → Populus
(B) Hydrilla → Wolffia → Cyperus → Populus → Diatoms
(C) Cyperus → Diatoms → Hydrilla → Wolffia → Populus
(D) Diatoms → Hydrilla → Wolffia → Cyperus → Populus

14. Which of the following is not a class of aquatic ecosystems based on salinity levels?
(A) Stagnant water ecosystem
(B) Freshwater ecosystem
(C) Brackish ecosystem
(D) Marine ecosystem

15. The K-strategists are
(a) Large organisms which have relatively longer life
(b) Provide care for their offsprings
(c) Organisms that stabilise their population at carrying capacity for the area

Choose the correct answer;
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)

MCQs on Ecology & Biodiversity Conservation -7

1. Which of the following is not an IUCN-designated threatened species found in India?
(A) Asiatic Lion
(B) Bengal Tiger
(C) Indian White rumped vulture
(D) Mountain gorilla

2. Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square metre?
(A) A grassland
(B) A coral reef
(C) An open ocean
(D) A tropical rain forest

3. The rate of energy at consumer’s level is called
(A) Primary productivity
(B) Gross primary productivity
(C) Net primary productivity
(D) Secondary productivity

4. Establishment of a species in a new area is referred to as
(A) Stabilization
(B) Aggregation
(C) Ecesis
(D) Migration

5. The Zooplankton of continental shelf is generally the same as in
(A) Neritic region
(B) Pelagic region
(C) Estuary region
(D) Benthic region

6. In biogeochemical cycle, a chemical element or molecule moves through
(A) Biosphere and lithosphere
(B) Biosphere, lithosphere and atmosphere
(C) Biosphere, lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere
(D) Lithosphere and atmosphere

7. The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is
(A) the gross primary productivity minus plant respiration
(B) the primary productivity at herbivore level
(C) the primary productivity at consumer level
(D) the productivity at top consumer level minus respiration at all levels

8. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots?
(A) The Eastern Ghats
(B) The Western Ghats
(C) North-Eastern Hills
(D) South-Eastern Hills

9. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and research and no biotic interference, is known as
(A) Undisturbed zone
(B) Buffer zone
(C) Core zone
(D) Principal zone

10. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of Himalayas and Nilgiri?
(A) Dry deciduous forest
(B) Moist tropical forest
(C) Temperate forest
(D) Tropical moist deciduous forest

11. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows:
(A) Nudation – Colonisation – Ecesis – Aggregation
(B) Aggregation – Colonization – Ecesis – Nudation
(C) Ecesis – Nudation – Aggregation – Colonization
(D) Nudation – Ecesis – Colonization – Aggregation

12. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting?
(A) Epigeic
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic
(D) All the above

13. Which one of the following is an in situ method of biodiversity conservation?
(A) Reserve forest
(B) National parks
(C) Sanctuaries
(D) All the above

 14. Progressive increase in concentration of a xenobiotic compound when it passes through the food chain is called
(A) Biomagnification
(B) Hyper accumulation
(C) Bioaccumulation
(D) None of the above

15. Highest level of biotic interaction is
(A) Mutualism
(B) Predation
(C) Parasitism
(D) Amensalism