Civil Service Preliminary Paper-1 Previous Year Solved Questions for the year 2019 (Question No. 31 to 40)


31. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agriculture land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Answer: (b)

32. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule

Answer: (b)

33. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the India Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on the forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers ( Recognition of Forest Rights) Act , 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

34. Consider the following statements :

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

35. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime membership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai

Answer: (a)

36. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

37.With reference to the constitution of India, prohibition or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commision of India while discharging its duties can not be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crises in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures can not make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union legislature.

Answer: (b)

38. consider the following statements :

1. The motion to impeach a judge of the supreme court of India cannot be rejected by the speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of the impeachment of the judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each house of the parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that house and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,3 and 4

Answer: (c)

39. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee(1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution(2000)

Answer: (c)

40. Consider the following statements:

1. The parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (a)

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